Free mock test
Financial Functions

Financial Functions

Microsoft Excel · 3 min read

Financial functions follow one rule: money you pay out is negative, money you receive is positive. Use a rate per period and the number of periods in the same unit. For monthly payments on a yearly rate, divide the rate by 12 and multiply the years by 12.

FunctionSyntaxFinds
PMT=PMT(rate, nper, pv, [fv], [type])Regular payment (EMI)
PPMT / IPMT=PPMT(rate, per, nper, pv)Principal part / interest part of one payment
FV=FV(rate, nper, pmt, [pv], [type])Future value
PV=PV(rate, nper, pmt, [fv], [type])Present value
NPER=NPER(rate, pmt, pv, [fv], [type])Number of periods
RATE=RATE(nper, pmt, pv, [fv], [type])Interest rate per period
NPV=NPV(rate, value1, value2, ...)Net present value
IRR=IRR(values, [guess])Internal rate of return

type: 0 or omitted = payment at the end of the period; 1 = at the beginning.

Worked examples

SituationFormulaResult
EMI on a loan of ₹5,00,000 at 9% a year for 5 years=PMT(9%/12,60,500000)-10,379.18 a month (negative = you pay). Total paid = 10,379.18 × 60 = 6,22,750.66, so interest = ₹1,22,750.66.
SIP of ₹5,000 a month at 6% a year for 5 years=FV(6%/12,60,-5000)₹3,48,850.15
Same SIP, paid at the start of each month=FV(6%/12,60,-5000,0,1)₹3,50,594.40
₹1,00,000 lump sum at 8% for 5 years=FV(8%,5,0,-100000)₹1,46,932.81
Present value of ₹10,000 due in 3 years at 10%=PV(10%,3,0,-10000)₹7,513.15
Years to double money at 8%=NPER(8%,0,-1,2)about 9.01 years
Monthly rate behind the EMI above=RATE(60,-10379.18,500000)0.75% a month, so 9% a year

NPV and IRR

Cash flows for a project: -1,00,000 now, then +40,000, +50,000, +60,000 at the end of years 1, 2 and 3. Discount rate 10%.

  • =NPV(10%,40000,50000,60000)-100000 → ₹22,764.84. NPV assumes the first value comes at the END of period 1, so the initial investment is subtracted outside the function.
  • =IRR(A1:A4) with the four flows in A1:A4 (including -1,00,000) → 21.65%. IRR is the rate at which NPV becomes zero.
  • XNPV and XIRR do the same with actual dates; MIRR uses separate borrowing and reinvestment rates.

Depreciation

Asset cost ₹1,00,000, salvage value ₹10,000, life 5 years.

FunctionFormulaYear 1Method
SLN=SLN(100000,10000,5)18,000 every yearStraight-line: (cost - salvage) ÷ life
DB=DB(100000,10000,5,1)36,900Fixed declining balance
DDB=DDB(100000,10000,5,1)40,000 (year 2: 24,000)Double-declining balance, rate = 2 ÷ life
SYD=SYD(100000,10000,5,1)30,000Sum-of-years' digits

Other: =EFFECT(nominal_rate, npery) gives the effective annual rate; =NOMINAL(effect_rate, npery) does the reverse.

Keep practising

Notes are only half the work. Test yourself with questions and discuss doubts with other aspirants.

Prepared for exam revision from standard computer textbooks, Microsoft documentation and official sources. Features differ between Excel and Word versions (2016, 2019, 2021, 365) so check which version your exam follows. Found a mistake? Tell us.